1=3 right? Is this not correct?

Rajni Jain

Rajni Jain

@rajni-E46Rlm Oct 25, 2024
Where is the mistake in the below explanation?
1=3

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  • Kaustubh Katdare

    Kaustubh Katdare

    @thebigk Jan 11, 2014

    'x = y' , which means Apple = Orange.
  • Anoop Kumar

    Anoop Kumar

    @anoop-kumar-GDGRCn Jan 11, 2014

    It's actually

    3*0 = 0
  • Ramani Aswath

    Ramani Aswath

    @ramani-VR4O43 Jan 11, 2014

    Anoop Kumar
    It's actually 3*0 = 0
    Right.
    The last but one step can be elaborated as 3 x 0 = 1 x 0. The fallacy is that dividing both sides by zero gives 3 = 1.
    Dividing by zero is an invalid operation.
  • zaveri

    zaveri

    @zaveri-5TD6Sk Jan 12, 2014

    Check step number 5:

    it goes as 3X=X = 3Y = Y

    is this supposed to be 3X-X = 3Y - Y ?

    if it is, then the mistake occurs at step number 6.

    Step number 6 would correctly go as : 3X - 3Y = Y - X
  • micheal john

    micheal john

    @micheal-john-l1fIn3 Jan 12, 2014

    1=3 is incorrect equation
  • Kaustubh Katdare

    Kaustubh Katdare

    @thebigk Jan 12, 2014

    The first line itself is wrong. When you say, 'x=y', which means 'x' and 'y' are one and the same thing. So it can be extended to any level and prove anything equal to anything.
  • micheal john

    micheal john

    @micheal-john-l1fIn3 Jan 12, 2014

    Kaustubh Katdare
    The first line itself is wrong. When you say, 'x=y', which means 'x' and 'y' are one and the same thing. So it can be extended to any level and prove anything equal to anything.
    yes
  • Ramani Aswath

    Ramani Aswath

    @ramani-VR4O43 Jan 14, 2014

    micheal john
    yes
    Not really. X can be the number of girls in a class while y can be the number of desks in the class. The real issue is that division by zero is not a defined mathematical operation. The whole thing is set up as a confusing buzz, hiding the wrong operation.
  • madhu27

    madhu27

    @madhu27-Yq7VLh Jan 17, 2014

    step1: x=y
    but in step5, 3(x-y)=(x-y)
    which means, 3(0)=(0)
    the mistake occurs here..😎
  • Shashank Moghe

    Shashank Moghe

    @shashank-94ap1q Sep 15, 2014

    A.V.Ramani
    Right.
    The last but one step can be elaborated as 3 x 0 = 1 x 0. The fallacy is that dividing both sides by zero gives 3 = 1.
    Dividing by zero is an invalid operation.

    Sir nailed it. Simple and elegant explanation.
  • shiwa436

    shiwa436

    @shiwa436-h94d47 Sep 16, 2014

    The above thing is just like.....

    If a=b , b=c then a=c
    Implies 2=root(4) , root(4)=-2 then 2=-2
  • Ramani Aswath

    Ramani Aswath

    @ramani-VR4O43 Sep 16, 2014

    shiwa436
    The above thing is just like.....

    If a=b , b=c then a=c
    Implies 2=root(4) , root(4)=-2 then 2=-2
    Not really.
    In maths there is an equality and there is an identical equality.
    Both +2 and -2 are roota of 4.
    So 2 = Sqrt(4) does not mean 2 is identically equal to Sqrt(4)
  • shiwa436

    shiwa436

    @shiwa436-h94d47 Sep 16, 2014

    #-Link-Snipped-# ramani.. Sir,

    A small explanation will convince us, both the things are just outta incomplete application of actual rules....
  • Kaustubh Katdare

    Kaustubh Katdare

    @thebigk Sep 16, 2014

    This is the simplest explanation:

    The 'proof' starts by assuming 'X' = 'Y'. Since X and Y aren't defined -> you should be able to prove almost anything; because it's based on 'assumption' that X = Y.
  • Ramani Aswath

    Ramani Aswath

    @ramani-VR4O43 Sep 16, 2014

    shiwa436
    #-Link-Snipped-# ramani.. Sir,

    A small explanation will convince us, both the things are just outta incomplete application of actual rules....
    Sqrt(4) = +/- 2
    Using Sqrt(4) to mean +2 in one part of the argument and -2 in another part leads to an inconsistency beca

    The original problem has a different issue. That argument uses division by zero, which is not permitted in maths.
  • Shashank Moghe

    Shashank Moghe

    @shashank-94ap1q Sep 17, 2014

    Kaustubh Katdare
    This is the simplest explanation:

    The 'proof' starts by assuming 'X' = 'Y'. Since X and Y aren't defined -> you should be able to prove almost anything; because it's based on 'assumption' that X = Y.
    The problem is not the assumption. Mathematics gives us the full liberty to assume anything that fits the rules (and here assuming two variables are equal is not against any). The problem is the step (tricky step) which is so common to many such "proofs" which claim flabbergasting results to be true. This tricky step is intentionally introduced because it skips the attention of most amateur proof readers: and the step is called "division by zero", which is not defined.
  • uday ultra

    uday ultra

    @uday-ultra-BDNYAg Nov 26, 2014

    Rajni Jain
    Where is the mistake in the below explanation?
    1=3
    below the 4th dot