0 power to 0 = 0 or 1? :)

ErAnushka

ErAnushka

@eranushka-4BgWe8 Oct 27, 2024
Hi again 😀 Sorry for asking too many questions, but I "have to" clear my mind 😀

As we know for other numbers we get "1" but what about 0, 0 power to 0? 😀

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  • jaspal rautela

    jaspal rautela

    @jaspal-rautela-yw5rJz Sep 25, 2012

    undefined.......
  • ErAnushka

    ErAnushka

    @eranushka-4BgWe8 Sep 25, 2012

    jaspal rautela
    undefined.......
    are you sure? 😕
  • jaspal rautela

    jaspal rautela

    @jaspal-rautela-yw5rJz Sep 25, 2012

    yes...
  • ErAnushka

    ErAnushka

    @eranushka-4BgWe8 Sep 25, 2012

    jaspal rautela
    yes...
    Okay 😀 Thanks 😀
  • Kaustubh Katdare

    Kaustubh Katdare

    @thebigk Sep 25, 2012

    Check this page - <a href="https://www.askamathematician.com/2010/12/q-what-does-00-zero-raised-to-the-zeroth-power-equal-why-do-mathematicians-and-high-school-teachers-disagree/" target="_blank" rel="noopener noreferrer">Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist</a>
  • ErAnushka

    ErAnushka

    @eranushka-4BgWe8 Sep 25, 2012

    The_Big_K
    Check this page - <a href="https://www.askamathematician.com/2010/12/q-what-does-00-zero-raised-to-the-zeroth-power-equal-why-do-mathematicians-and-high-school-teachers-disagree/" target="_blank" rel="nofollow noopener noreferrer">Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist</a>
    Okay 😀
  • vinod1993

    vinod1993

    @vinod1993-r3yTlk Sep 26, 2012

    Obviously 0^0 is one. How?
    Let us assume x=0^0.
    So take logarithm on both sides,
    ln x= ln (0^0)
    Using logarithmic rules,
    ln x = 0*ln(0)
    So here we arrive at a conclusion, zero multiplied by infinity(indeterminate to be precise). It's zero, for those of you who argue on this let me try telling this how,
    0*ln0 can be written as lim(x->0+) sin(x)*lnx. Because at x=0, sinx=0
    sin(x)*lnx = lnx/cosec(x). So, if we apply l'hopital's rule twice we arrive at,
    lim(x->0+) {[cos(x).tan(x)]+[sin(x).sec^2(x)]} which is equal to zero.
    so that implies, ln x=0 => x=e^0=1.
    Therefore, 0^0 is one.! 😀
  • Abhishek Rawal

    Abhishek Rawal

    @abhishek-fg9tRh Sep 26, 2012

    Nice debatable question Anushka,
    0^0 can have two approaches.
    Read this :
    <a href="https://www.askamathematician.com/2010/12/q-what-does-00-zero-raised-to-the-zeroth-power-equal-why-do-mathematicians-and-high-school-teachers-disagree/" target="_blank" rel="nofollow noopener noreferrer">Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist</a>
    #-Link-Snipped-#
  • ErAnushka

    ErAnushka

    @eranushka-4BgWe8 Sep 26, 2012

    #-Link-Snipped-# True, thanks 😀

    #-Link-Snipped-# Yes, I read that already, as #-Link-Snipped-# said 😀

    Thank you guys 😀
  • zaveri

    zaveri

    @zaveri-5TD6Sk Oct 19, 2012

    any operation performed on zero alone yields zero
  • vinod1993

    vinod1993

    @vinod1993-r3yTlk Oct 20, 2012

    zaveri
    any operation performed on zero alone yields zero
    Not applicable to all operations #-Link-Snipped-# since 0!=1. 😀
  • manishks

    manishks

    @manishks-AZybhs Oct 22, 2012

    0^0 is an indeterminate form. Its undefined. Its neither 0 nor 1.
    indeterminate forms include 0^0, 0/0, 1/∞, ∞ − ∞, ∞/∞, 0 × ∞, and ∞^0
    😀
  • vikaskumar11233

    vikaskumar11233

    @vikaskumar11233-J10JeV Dec 10, 2012

    0 to the power 0 neither gives you 0 nor 1 as a result. It is undefined.