0 power to 0 = 0 or 1? :)
Hi again ๐ Sorry for asking too many questions, but I "have to" clear my mind ๐
As we know for other numbers we get "1" but what about 0, 0 power to 0? ๐
As we know for other numbers we get "1" but what about 0, 0 power to 0? ๐
Replies
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jaspal rautelaundefined.......
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ErAnushka
are you sure? ๐jaspal rautelaundefined....... -
jaspal rautelayes...
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ErAnushka
Okay ๐ Thanks ๐jaspal rautelayes... -
ErAnushka
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vinod1993Obviously 0^0 is one. How?
Let us assume x=0^0.
So take logarithm on both sides,
ln x= ln (0^0)
Using logarithmic rules,
ln x = 0*ln(0)
So here we arrive at a conclusion, zero multiplied by infinity(indeterminate to be precise). It's zero, for those of you who argue on this let me try telling this how,
0*ln0 can be written as lim(x->0+) sin(x)*lnx. Because at x=0, sinx=0
sin(x)*lnx = lnx/cosec(x). So, if we apply l'hopital's rule twice we arrive at,
lim(x->0+) {[cos(x).tan(x)]+[sin(x).sec^2(x)]} which is equal to zero.
so that implies, ln x=0 => x=e^0=1.
Therefore, 0^0 is one.! ๐ -
Abhishek RawalNice debatable question Anushka,
0^0 can have two approaches.
Read this :
Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist
#-Link-Snipped-# -
ErAnushka#-Link-Snipped-# True, thanks ๐
#-Link-Snipped-# Yes, I read that already, as #-Link-Snipped-# said ๐
Thank you guys ๐ -
zaveriany operation performed on zero alone yields zero
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vinod1993
Not applicable to all operations #-Link-Snipped-# since 0!=1. ๐zaveriany operation performed on zero alone yields zero -
manishks0^0 is an indeterminate form. Its undefined. Its neither 0 nor 1.
indeterminate forms include 0^0, 0/0, 1/โ, โ โ โ, โ/โ, 0 ร โ, and โ^0
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vikaskumar112330 to the power 0 neither gives you 0 nor 1 as a result. It is undefined.
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