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@jaspal-rautela-yw5rJz • Sep 25, 2012
undefined....... -
@eranushka-4BgWe8 • Sep 25, 2012
are you sure? 😕jaspal rautelaundefined....... -
@jaspal-rautela-yw5rJz • Sep 25, 2012
yes... -
@eranushka-4BgWe8 • Sep 25, 2012
Okay 😀 Thanks 😀jaspal rautelayes... -
@thebigk • Sep 25, 2012
Check this page - <a href="https://www.askamathematician.com/2010/12/q-what-does-00-zero-raised-to-the-zeroth-power-equal-why-do-mathematicians-and-high-school-teachers-disagree/" target="_blank" rel="noopener noreferrer">Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist</a> -
@eranushka-4BgWe8 • Sep 25, 2012
Okay 😀The_Big_KCheck this page - <a href="https://www.askamathematician.com/2010/12/q-what-does-00-zero-raised-to-the-zeroth-power-equal-why-do-mathematicians-and-high-school-teachers-disagree/" target="_blank" rel="nofollow noopener noreferrer">Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist</a> -
@vinod1993-r3yTlk • Sep 26, 2012
Obviously 0^0 is one. How?
Let us assume x=0^0.
So take logarithm on both sides,
ln x= ln (0^0)
Using logarithmic rules,
ln x = 0*ln(0)
So here we arrive at a conclusion, zero multiplied by infinity(indeterminate to be precise). It's zero, for those of you who argue on this let me try telling this how,
0*ln0 can be written as lim(x->0+) sin(x)*lnx. Because at x=0, sinx=0
sin(x)*lnx = lnx/cosec(x). So, if we apply l'hopital's rule twice we arrive at,
lim(x->0+) {[cos(x).tan(x)]+[sin(x).sec^2(x)]} which is equal to zero.
so that implies, ln x=0 => x=e^0=1.
Therefore, 0^0 is one.! 😀 -
@abhishek-fg9tRh • Sep 26, 2012
Nice debatable question Anushka,
0^0 can have two approaches.
Read this :
<a href="https://www.askamathematician.com/2010/12/q-what-does-00-zero-raised-to-the-zeroth-power-equal-why-do-mathematicians-and-high-school-teachers-disagree/" target="_blank" rel="nofollow noopener noreferrer">Q: What does 0^0 (zero raised to the zeroth power) equal? Why do mathematicians and high school teachers disagree? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist</a>
#-Link-Snipped-# -
@eranushka-4BgWe8 • Sep 26, 2012
#-Link-Snipped-# True, thanks 😀
#-Link-Snipped-# Yes, I read that already, as #-Link-Snipped-# said 😀
Thank you guys 😀 -
@zaveri-5TD6Sk • Oct 19, 2012
any operation performed on zero alone yields zero -
@vinod1993-r3yTlk • Oct 20, 2012
Not applicable to all operations #-Link-Snipped-# since 0!=1. 😀zaveriany operation performed on zero alone yields zero -
@manishks-AZybhs • Oct 22, 2012
0^0 is an indeterminate form. Its undefined. Its neither 0 nor 1.
indeterminate forms include 0^0, 0/0, 1/∞, ∞ − ∞, ∞/∞, 0 × ∞, and ∞^0
😀 -
@vikaskumar11233-J10JeV • Dec 10, 2012
0 to the power 0 neither gives you 0 nor 1 as a result. It is undefined.