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Old 6th May 2008, 09:59 AM
ash
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Default Re: Is 0.999999.... (infinite) equal to 1?

Vissin, great post! If I might add a totally useless comment: how do we get a complete "3" to multiply the 1/3? It could be 2.99999999... or 3.00000...1

1 in continous (note, not discrete) terms is so absolute, I'd doubt we can reach it in practice. Why don't we just appreciate that? We've seem to accept pi and e.. just bask in the beauty of natural numbers in life *grin*
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